Romans 3:9-20

Contemporary English Version -

Rom 3:9  What does all this mean? Does it mean that we Jews are better off than the Gentiles? No, it doesn't! Jews, as well as Gentiles, are ruled by sin, just as I have said. 

Rom 3:10  The Scriptures tell us, "No one is acceptable to God! 

Rom 3:11  Not one of them understands or even searches for God. (Ps 53:1-3) (Ps 14:3)

Rom 3:12  They have all turned away and are worthless. There isn't one person who does right. 

Rom 3:13  Their words are like an open pit, and their tongues are good only for telling lies. Each word is as deadly as the fangs of a snake, (Ps 5:9, 140:3)

Rom 3:14  and they say nothing but bitter curses. (Ps 10:7)

Rom 3:15  These people quickly become violent. (Is 59:7) (Prov 1:16)

Rom 3:16  Wherever they go, they leave ruin and destruction. 

Rom 3:17  They don't know how to live in peace. (Is 59:8)

Rom 3:18  They don't even fear God." (Ps 36:1)

Rom 3:19  We know that everything in the Law was written for those who are under its power. The Law says these things to stop anyone from making excuses and to let God show that the whole world is guilty. 

Rom 3:20  God doesn't accept people simply because they obey the Law. No, indeed! All the Law does is to point out our sin. 

Main Points: Paul flips his assertion that there are some advantages to being Jewish. They have God’s words for one thing. However, within the context of the Law, there are no advantages. It was simply not there to do that (create an advantage)….it is there to convict (literally). Verse 9 indicates it is a system  “under sin”…or ruled by sin. He states this to solidify his later arguments for what the Gospel does accomplish that the Law cannot (by design).

6. What question is Paul asking when he asks, “Are we Jews any better off?” He is following up the “advantage” he spoke of earlier. The “question” was likely more of a posturing of “power” within the member ranks.  If the faith was delivered through the Jews, wouldn’t it make more sense to go to the Jews for advice? Problem was, many Jews were trying to bind the old law practices onto the Gentiles. Their argument of dealing with God over thousands of years might have held weight with some. Others may not have been so gullible, seeing that it was the Jews that forced Jesus into crucifixion.

7. Where does Paul quote from? See above text. Why would Paul quote these scriptures? Sometimes….more often than not, a quoted ancient scripture would have a direct parallel to the point being made. That is some of the case here, but Paul is not directing attention to the original speaker or the condition under which these words were stated. It seems as though he is just pulling one convicting verse to another to make a case for his argument. Nobody  should consider themselves good before God. He will make the case for the remedy LATER. For now, he is dismantling any arrogance based on ANYTHING!

8. Explain verse 19. By this time, Paul has a split context created in the letter. To the Jew….the Mosaical Law which he has made the main context in this section. However we must not ignore the fact that he has unequivocally included the Gentiles as being under a system of law as well. By extension, whatever he hands down to the Jews here, the Gentiles will eventually need to apply to themselves….thus making THE WORLD guilty.
That is: All law has left mankind without any excuses. We are all guilty before God.
Note: The words “to show”..indicating the purpose of the law. Everyone was at one time living UNDER this system, SUBJECT to its provisions, and all it did was justify God, and condemn mankind.

9. (20) Define the works of the law. For help, look back at Romans 2:25-29 and Galatians 2:1-21. WORKS: G2041 ergon er'-gon From ἔργω ergō (a primary but obsolete word; to work); toil – LAW: G3551 νόμος nomos nom'-os From a primary word νέμω nemō (to parcel out, especially food or grazing to animals); law (through the idea of prescriptive usage), generally (regulation)
Rom2:25-29 Circumcision/obedience
Gal 2:1-21 (21) If we can be acceptable to God by obeying the Law, it was useless for Christ to die.
Works  of the law were to include ALL the prescribed sacrifices and festivals. It required the one practicing them to know them. 

10. With this definition, explain verse 20. Even with a strictest adherence to the precepts of the law it was always a reaction to or because of sin. Obedience TO THE LAW…not necessarily an alignment with God.

11. What does come through the law? What is the purpose of the law? Conviction only in the sense of BEING convicted (of transgression). See Question 8 – This is what the law satisfies, (revealing mankind’s sin). True, this was its primary purpose. As Paul will explain later, its more important purpose is to drive mankind to a different  system that promises greater results.

NOTE: The Roman dedication to gods was typically one out of compulsion and not “love” in the adoration sense. Roman gods were to be placated publically as a matter of duty. This would play negatively later in the persecutions against the Christians.
What Paul is doing HERE is accusing the law of becoming that same sort of religion. And, in a sense he is correct. It became more of a thing to placate an angry God.  It was about sin….not God. It simply COULD NOT become more valuable.